Warning: Politically incorrect diatribe below. Read at your own risk. May contain "trigger words."
Ok then. Here we go...
Sounds more to me that it's a case of statutory "rape," meaning that technically the alleged "victim" could not legally have given consent but may well have been a willing and eager participant nonetheless.
She apparently wasn't too upset or "traumatized" to marry him and have children with him. Yes, they eventually divorced. But that happens all the time for any number of reasons.
I'd bet all this is coming out now as a direct result of squabbling in Family Court. She probably threatened him with it and he called her bluff. Oops!
Anyway, I think it's ridiculous to charge someone 20 years after the fact when the alleged "victim" was plenty old enough to know what she was doing, later married her "abuser" and had his children, and only now brings it up when they are fighting in court. If she really thought she was a victim, she could have turned him in long before now. Sounds rather opportunistic to me.
The sad part is exercises in vindictiveness like this divert attention away from and tend to dilute the seriousness of cases where there really is child abuse.
This concludes the diatribe. Flame away if you must. I'm just saying what I think may be going on in this particular situation. Other cases may be completely different. Each one must be weighed on its own merits.